2022新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题及答案

2022-11-24 14:27:18| 舒淇

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)试题

本试卷共10页，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays(60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%

Group Assignments(30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments(作业)during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework(10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete shortin-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previousclass' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally,from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to becompleted at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each classperiod it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Dailyassignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of anexcused absence will be accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.

22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.

C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula(芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"(but quite eatable)vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."

If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished(有瑕疵的)produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste. B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat. D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?

A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin's company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment. B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed. B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.

The elderly residents(居民)in care homes in London are being given hens to look afterto stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity(慈善组织)to reduce loneliness andimprove elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use ofmedicine where hens are in use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I wentto school.

"I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hensout and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed.

"It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see thehens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities,and it feels great to have done something useful."

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East,and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on theproject, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. Weare looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part inthe project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creativeactivities."

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.

C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and"a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds morecommon than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes inhuman bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that atesofter foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich,Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults werealigned(对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching thelower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure(结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development ofagriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbonedidn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in thesound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasingremarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in thelanguages of many hunter-gatherer people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were presentwhen human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use hasnot necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the hugevariety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of thingslike biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the researchteam.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?

A. Its variety. B. Its distribution. C. Its quantity. D. Its development.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication. B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system. D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled "Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner." One reason was: "You'll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym," while another read: " 36 " With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle(微妙)competition.

So, how do you find a workout partner?

First of all, decide what you want from that person. 37 Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won't result in a useful response. 38 If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. 39

You and your partner will probably have different skills. 40 Over time, both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core(核心)of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You'll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.

Some of our 41 are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we 42 along Chalk Creek. I was 43 that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek(小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was 44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So 45 tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It 46 — he didn't end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48 our peaceful morning trip. The 49 picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to 50 themotor. Nothing. He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed(拖)us back. We were 53 .

Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of 54 , wondering what camping fun and 55 we will experience next.

41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for

46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off

48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded

49. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed

50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix

51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly

53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right

54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement

55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict

第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park(GPNP).56(cover)an area about three times57 size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that58 (be)previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority59 (increase)effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP 60 (design)to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity(完整性)of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, 61 leaving behind precious natural assets(资产)for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity between separate 62 (population)and homes of giant pandas, and 63 (eventual)achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

Giant pandas also serve 64 an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP isintended to provide stronger protection for all the species 65 live within the GiantPanda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：

1. 节目介绍;

2. 访谈的时间和话题。

注意：

1. 写作词数应为80左右;

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primaryschools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)throughthick evergreen forest.

I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the sideby a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other children. He hesitated and then saidhe had decided not to run.

What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,"he explained uncomfortably. "I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide."

I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well—he thought he was doingthe right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participatedto the best of his ability in whatever they weredoing. That was why none of the childrenthought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took himlonger—that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and wasproud of his strongdetermination.

注意：

1. 续写词数应为150左右;

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)参考答案

本试卷共10页，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如高改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和符题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)

第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)

1. C 2. B 3. A4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A8. D9. B 10. C 11. A12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C

第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)

16. C 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. F

第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)

第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分，满分15分)

21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. B

第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)

36. Covering

37. the

38. were

39. to increase

40. is designed

41. and

42. populations

43. eventually

44. as

45. that

第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

【答案】Dear Caroline,

This is my first time that I have invited you to attend our program —Talk and Talk. It is ten years since Talk and Talk was established. This is an amazing program where you can share your ideas with students. Now, when having trouble in learning English well, plenty of students urge to know how to deal with it. As our distinguished foreign language teacher, your aid can help us a lot. If you are available on this Sunday, I together with the whole Talk and Talk staff am waiting for your coming. I’d appreciate it if you take my invitation into consideration.

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节(满分25分)

47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

【答案】We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. I said gently and quietly, “No one can change your mind, except yourself. If you desire to challenge yourself, there is nothing to do with others’ thoughts.” He sat still with a deep breath. “You have a full preparation before this event, which is the most important reason why you show up here”, I added with a sincere tone. Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country run. His coach heard what David said

and gave me a look—the kind that was more determined than anyone else’s.

I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. The race started. It seemed that the runway was extremely long for young children, not to mention a child with a heart disease. David insisted on running as if he had forgotten all his weaknesses, though he was tripped over within the a few kilometers. It didn’t take long before he picked himself up again and continued his mission. Classmates all appeared on the racing track, cheering for him. “Come on! You can make it! We are proud of you!” they shouted enthusiastically. To everyone’s joy, he reached the final line and ranked the 20th. It was no more important whether he won the first place or not. It was his brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen finally.

高考英语阅读理解答题技巧

1.细节判断题

以原文中某一句话或某一个短语为入手点，考查学生对细节的理解。很多同学在做这种题目时比较喜欢在选项中寻找原文中的句子，但往往照抄原文的句子并不一定是正确选项。做这类题目时，应关注选项和原句的细微差别，选择与原文意思和所问问题都相符的答案。

2.单词释义或句意解释题

要求考生以上下文内容为参考，尝试理解文中出现的生词、短语或句子。这类题目的解题关键在于其上下文，因为在考查点前后出现的内容往往是对这个词的解释、说明、举例等。如When things are getting hard， a voice inside my head tells me that I can’t achieve something. Then， there are other distractions， such as family or hobbies. The key is to concentrate. 由前面的other可知distractions是与第一句基本相同的意思，第一句话表达的就是让人注意力分散的事情，下文又提到家庭、爱好，同时提到关键在于集中注意力。结合上下文可知 distractions意为activities that turn one’s attention away。

3.主旨大意题

如果是考查整篇文章的主旨大意，可以把文中每段的首句串起来考虑。若是仅考查某一段落的中心思想，则可将该段的首、尾句综合起来考虑。

4.标题选择题

标题的选择要遵循“精、准、全”三原则。“精”是指要用精炼的语言概括出文章的中心;“准”是指标题的选择要注意文章的外延和内涵，不能扩大或缩小文章的内容;“全”是指标题的选择应该排除掉那些片面的选项，而正确地选取能包含文章的主要内容及作者要表达的观点的选项。

5.推理判断题

题目中常含有infer， conclude， know/learn from the passage，imply等类似的词。这类题目的选项特点是：第一，有些错误的干扰选项只是对原文的简单重复，而非推断出来的结论;第二，有些选项根据我们已有的常识是正确的，但却不是基于文章;第三，一些选项因果倒置，看似从原文中推导出来的结论，实际却与原文不符。推理判断题是阅读理解中最难的一类问题。我们必须以原文为依据去合理推测才能找到合适的答案。遇到一些很难在原文中找到明确的解题线索的题目，可以根据词句隐含的意义和作者的语气去分析推导答案。

6.作者的观点、态度题

解题的关键是要看作者在文中用了什么样的口气。若用褒义词，显然是赞成;若用贬义词，显然是反对;若客观陈述，则是中性的立场，不偏不倚。因此，同学们在做这种题目时，应注意其中所使用的一些形容词，另外，我们可以寻找文中的转折词，一般转折词后面的文段表明了作者的观点。

英语改错题答题技巧

一、错误以改动一词为原则

一般情况下，每句至多有两处错误，每处错误以改动一词为原则，即在一个词上进行改动，可以是添一词、删一词或改一词。没有错误的句子无需改动。

二、改正以一个层次为原则

在对原文中的某个词进行改动时，只能在一个层次上进行改动，要么改变改义，要么改变词性，要么改变形式，而不能既改变词义又改变词性，或既改变词性又改变形式。

三、添加或删除词以虚词居多

需要添加或删除的词一般是冠词、介词、连词、助动词、不定式符号等，而动词、名词、形容词等有实际意义的一般不添加或删除，否则会改变句子原意。

四、改变形式以实词居多

对动词、名词、形容词、副词等实词一般只是改变它的形式，很少会将其改换成另外一个词，更不能随便添加或删除，以免导致语篇意义发生改变。

五、句子原意要保持不变

改错题一般应保持句子原意不变，即不能改变文章所要表达的意思，包括其语气和上下文的逻辑关系，只能对短文中的用词错误、语法错误、逻辑错误进行改正。

六、小心局部通顺陷阱

有时孤立地分析某个句子，可能结构正确、语义通顺，但如果放到整个语篇中考虑，就会发现该句中存在不合逻辑的地方，因此一定要警惕局部通顺的陷阱，结合语篇进行全面分析。

英语改错题十大常见错误

1、形容词与副词的误用。

如exciting与excited，hard与hardly，possible与possibly，here与there等，以及形容词与副词的比较级与最高级。

2、名词的单复数误用。

如在several，many，various，different，a few，one of等之后，常用名词的复数，在every与each之后常用单数。

3、代词的误用。

如you与your，it’s与its，it与they或them，one与ones，宾格(如me)与反身代词(如myself)等的误用。

4、介词的误用、缺少或多余。

常见的如in 与on，to与for，instead与instead of，because与because of等的误用。

5、时态的错误。

看一篇文章，要有一种大局观，要上前下挂，看看上下文的时态是否一致。

6、连词的误用。

如or与and的误用，and与but的误用，so与but的误用，because或since与so连用，though与but连用等。

7、第三人称单数后的动词形式。

8、一些固定结构的误用。

如so...that被误用作very...that，too...to被误用very...to，as...as被误作so...as等。

9、定语从句中关系词的误用。

10、一些常用词的误用。

如what与how，except与besides，any与some以及它们的合成词如anything与something，anywhere与somewhere等混淆不清。